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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below. Video conference bridges accomplish their conferencing functionality by doing media transcoding or media switching. What are the three main advantages of media switching? (Choose three.) A. extremely low latency B. endpoints that can customize layouts C. the ability to upscale low-resolution video D. lower cost per port E. typically higher port capacity F. the ability for endpoints to connect at different bandwidth speeds and resolutions Answer: A, D, E
Which two endpoints support the multisite option? (Choose two.) A. C20 B. SX10 C. Jabber D. SX-20 E. EX90 F. EX60 Answer: D, E
Topic 1, Video Concepts
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.) A. Scheduling of video conference calls B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking D. Centralized management of conference resources E. SMTP email event notification F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy H. Automated resource optimization Answer: A, D, E, F
During the initial setup of the Cisco TelePresence System 500, you are required to do an initial camera setup that fails. What might be a primary reason that the failure occurs? A. The camera cannot focus on the target. B. The room is too dark. C. The system is too far away from the target. D. The cable to the camera is not connected correctly. Answer: B
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time? A. MX300G2 B. SX80 C. SpeakerTrack60 D. C90 E. Jabber for Windows Answer: A
When a call is placed from a Cisco VCS registered SIP-only endpoint to an H.323-only endpoint, which type of call license is consumed? A. traversal call B. non-traversal call C. on-net call D. interworking call E. off-net call F. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Answer: A
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.) A. KPML B. DTMF C. PiP D. PoP E. FECC F. SCCP Answer: B, E
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Share some CCNP Collaboration 300-070 exam questions and answers below. What is the maximum number of 1080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered? A. 48. B. 180 C. 720 D. 800 Answer: A
Which tool can you use to evaluate dial plans for errors and to examine internal-to-internal and internal-to-external calls? A. RTMT B. DNA C. QRT Viewer D. CAR tool Answer: B
When dialing 1234, which rule is matched first? A. route pattern 1XXX B. route pattern 12[123]X C. translation pattern 12[123]X D. translation pattern 1XXX E. directory number 12345 Answer: C
Which codec provides native WebRTC-based video chat support in browsers such as Mozilla Firefox? A. H.265 B. WMV C. H.264 D. G.711 E. H.323 Answer: C
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.) A. They cannot use LDAP. B. They are used to authorize applications. C. They can utilize LDAP. D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types. E. They can be listed in a directory. Answer: C,D
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three.) A. client registration B. H.323 and SIP interworking C. Lync interworking D. transcoding E. phone proxy F. mobile and remote access Answer: B,D,E
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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager protocol communicates with collaboration endpoints? A. SCCP B. RTP C. SIP D. CDP Answer: C
On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be "TEI_ASSIGNED". What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway? A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational. B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway. C. The T1 interfaces are down. D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier. Answer: C
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers? A. Alternate Extension B. Notification Devices C. Alternate Names D. Message Settings E. Caller Input F. Mailbox Answer: A
A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.) A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role. B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp. C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp. D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role. E. The user account has the Standard CAR role. Answer: A,B
An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen? A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. LINK_UP D. CONTROLLER_UP Answer: A
An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) A. Contacts icon B. phone icon C. person icon D. message icon E. web video conferencing icon Answer: A,B
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active? A. LDAP System Configuration B. LDAP Directory C. End User Configuration D. LDAP Authentication E. Route Plan Report Answer: C
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.) A. Round-trip time B. QoS markings C. Bandwidth D. Ethernet E. Fibre F. Token ring Answer: A,B,C
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What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel mode ipv6 command. B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 address 2026::34:1/122 command. C. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ip address unnumbered Serial0/0/0.34 command. D. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel source Serial0/0/0.34 command and enter the tunnel source 2026::34:1/122 command. Answer: A
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command? A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501 B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit C. ping 10.1.1.1 D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size Answer: B
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as theAS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
Ticket 5 R1ACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. Configuration on R1 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 description link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip access-group edge_security in ip nat outside ip virtual-reassembly ntp brasdcast client net broadcast key 1 no cdp enable !! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any
On which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2? A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2 debug ppp authentication B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2 debug ppp authentication C. debug int s0/1 debug int 0/2 debug ppp authentication D. Debug condition interface s0/1 Debug condition interface s0/2 debug ppp authentication Answer: D
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. Answer: C
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch? A. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20 C. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20 D. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 E. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 Answer: A
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true? A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate. B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain. C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate. D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch. Answer: B
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.) A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host. C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator Answer: ACD
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts. Answer: BC
Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol? A. VRRP B. GLBP C. TFTP D. DHCP Answer: A
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You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs? A. 150 GB B. 100 GB C. 75 GB D. 50 GB Answer: B
You have a 4-node cluster serving home directories over two IPs per node. Which two methods would you use to set up DNS load balancing over a single name to the eight IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. On-Box DNS using a DNS delegation record B. Off-Box Round Robin DNS C. On-Node PTR records with reverse lookup per node D. Off-Node CNAME records for each node management interface Answer: A,B
What is true about a node root volume? A. There is a root volume on every node in a cluster. B. It is the root of a data SVM’s namespace. C. You can use vol move to move it to an aggregate on a different node. D. It is the most secure place to store critical user data. Answer: B
Which of the following is true about a data protection (DP) mirror destination volume? (Choose all that apply) A. Can be in the same vserver as the source B. Can be in a different vserver as the source C. Can be on a different cluster from the source D. Can be on a Data ONTAP 7-mode system E. Can be smaller than the source Answer: A,B,C
An administrator is working with an application group to resolve a performance problem within the environment. They are experiencing slow read speeds and are trying to determine what could be done to improve performance. What would you add to the system to improve performance? A. NVRAM B. FlashCache C. RAM D. processors Answer: B
A customer creates four broadcast domains with the following ports included for node cl-01: bcast1 ¨C e0c bcast2 ¨C e0d bcast3 ¨C e0e bcast4 ¨C e0f A customer creates a LIF and specifies a home port of cl-01:e0f. After LIF creation, the administrator modifies the home port to use cl-01:e0c. Which broadcast domain is the LIF using now? A. bcast4 B. bcast2 C. bcast1 D. bcast3 Answer: C
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