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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-071 exam questions and answers below. Which statements are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator. B. The data dictionary views can consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables. C. The usernames of all the users including the database administrators are stored in the data dictionary. D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of the columns to which a constraint applies. E. Both USER_OBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all the objects that are owned by the user. F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, use the same base tables from the data dictionary Answer: C,D,F
Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.) A. They can contain group functions. B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery. C. They use the < ALL operator to imply less than the maximum. D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only. E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the subquery. Answer: A,E
Which three statements are true regarding the data types? A. Only one LONG column can be used per table. B. ATIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds. C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file. D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a varchar2 data type column is one. E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width. Answer: A,D,E
Which statement is true regarding external tables? A. The default REJECT LIMIT for external tables is UNLIMITED. B. The data and metadata for an external table are stored outside the database. C. ORACLE_LOADER and ORACLE_DATAPUMP have exactly the same functionality when used with an external table. D. The CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement can be used to unload data into regular table in the database from an external table. Answer: D
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.) A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted Answer: A,D
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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below. Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM? A. FTP B. CIFS C. HTTP D. TFTP Answer: B
Which statement is true about establishing a SnapMirror relationship in clustered data ONTAP? A. It sets up the relationship, but does not start the initial transfer B. It sets up the relationship on the source node only C. It sets up the relationship and starts the initial data transfer D. It sets up the relationship and creates the destination volume Answer: A
A customer created a volume with the wrong language code. What should a customer do to correct this problem? A. Delete the volume and create a volume with the correct language code. B. Take the volume offline and change the language code. C. Change the language code on the volume. D. Change the language code on the parent storage virtual machine. Answer: A
You create a 1000 GB volume with space-guarantee set to none and fractional-reserve set to 0. In that volume you create a 400 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. How much space is available in the volume before data is written to the LUN? A. 400 GB B. 0 GB C. 600 GB D. 1000 GB Answer: C
What are two FPolicy methods for applications? (Choose two.) A. asynchronous B. semi-synchronous C. direct D. synchronous Answer: A,D
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Share some Implementation Engineer E20-393 exam questions and answers below. When defining which resources on the destination system the replicated item will use for an asynchronous session, which settings must be provided? A. Replication Mode, RPO, and Replicate To B. Name, Pool, and Storage Processor C. Ethernet Port, Subnet/Prefix Length, and Gateway D. Management IP Address, User Name, and Password Answer: A
On which systems is Quality of Service available? A. Physical Unity systems only B. UnityVSA systems only C. Physical Unity and UnityVSA systems D. All Flash Unity systems only Answer: D
In UnityVSA, what is the maximum storage capacity offered by the WOLslicense? A. 4TB B. 10TB C. 25TB D. 50TB Answer: D
Which Unity feature provides a high bandwidth connection for large file transfers, enables proactive Service Request generation and usage license reporting, and operates on a 24x7 basis? A. EMC Service Center B. Software Licensing Central C. Unisphere Central D. EMC Secure Remote Services Answer: D
When the LUN Snapshot Attach to Host operation is performed, what does theUnity system optionally do before beginning the attach process? A. Creates a snapshot of the LUN B. Detaches the host from the snapshots of any other LUN C. Creates a copy of the snapshot D. Deletes all other existing snapshots of the LUN Answer: C
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Which component of Microsoft Dynamics AX enforces user-specific data security on the data store and database? A. UI Interaction Layer (WCF) B. Data Access Layer (DAL) C. OData Endpoint (WCF) D. Form Engine Answer: B
You are using the Visual Studio development environment to perform a customization for your client.You create a custom model named MyCustomModel with extended reference models.You need to change the dependency information for the current model.Which action should you perform in the Microsoft Dynamics AX menu? A. Point to the project and then click Add Reference. B. Point to Model Management and then click Update Model Parameters. C. Point to Model Management and then click Viewing Package Dependencies. D. Point to Model Management and then click Build Model. Answer: A
You need to set up the standard properties pane for your development team.Which two configurations can be used? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. alphabetically by property B. null value C. category D. alphabetically by value Answer: A
You are explaining the structure of a model to your client Which two pieces of information should you provide to your client? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Models can contain elements. B. Models can be associated with multiple Microsoft Visual Studio AX projects. C. Models can contain data. D. Models can contain multiple packages. Answer: A
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-360 exam questions and answers below. A Cisco 7925 phone at a client’s location is not registering with CUCM. The engineer analyzes a packet capture, sees that the phone receives an IP, and downloads the proper configuration file from TFTP successfully. What type of messages should the phone be sending at this point? A. H.245 B. H.323 C. MCGP D. SCCP Answer: D
An 802.11n implementation is being discussed. Users are satisfied with the potential 300-450 Mbps throughput of new 802.11n APs. Which three bandwidth requirements are used to calculate per client bandwidth through an 802.11n AP network? (Choose three.) A. 450 Mbps throughput is the client max for 5-GHz radio. B. Channel bonding on 5 GHz is required for a client to have a 300 Mbps WiFi link. C. 300 Mbps throughput is the client max for 2.4-GHz radio. D. The remaining bandwidth is divided per device when more clients are connected to one AP. E. 100 Mbps Ethernet switch port is a potential bottleneck. F. CleanAir helps clear noise for 802.11n channel bonding to work. Answer: A,C,E
A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.) A. Use APs with external antennas. B. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput. C. Use APs with built-in antennas. D. Use a battery pack to power APs. E. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements. F. Use APs with directional antennas. Answer: C,D,E
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.) A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled. B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments. C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete. D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems. E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly. Answer: B,E
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration? A. 225 feet B. 80 feet C. 150 feet D. 100 feet Answer: B
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Which Identity Engines components allows non-IT engineers to create temporary access accounts for guests? A. Ignition Guest Access portal B. Ignition Guest Manager C. Ignition Access portal D. Ignition Access Manager Answer: B
In which file format does Avaya provide the Identity Engines Ignition Server, Ignition Guest Manager, and Ignition Access Portal as Virtual Appliances? A. .VMDK B. .OVF C. .CSV D. .VDI Answer: B
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Which protocol is used between VCF member devices to create a loop-free topology? A. LLDP B. MSTP C. RSTP D. VCCP Answer: D
Which EVPN service consists of a single broadcast domain per EVPN instance? A. a VLAN bundle service interface B. a VLAN-based service interface C. a port-based VLAN-aware service interface D. a port-based service interface Answer: B
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